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Friday, May 15, 2009

MAY 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 ESwitching Chapter 1 - LAN Switching and Wireless

updated: MAY 2009 by bluefiz 100%


1         
Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?
            access layer
            core layer
            data-link layer
            distribution layer
            network layer
            physical layer
2         
Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
            core only
            distribution and core
            access and distribution
            access, distribution, and core
3         
Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
            application
            access
            distribution
            network
            core
4         
Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?
            Layer 1
            Layer 2
            Layer 3
            Layer 4
5         
What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?
            Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
            The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
            A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.
            QoS issues are greatly reduced.
            There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.
6         
Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
            security policies
            Power over Ethernet
            switch port security
            quality of service
            Layer 3 functionality
            end user access to network
7         
A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)
            port security
            security policies
            10 Gigabit Ethernet
            quality of service (QoS)
            hot-swappable hardware
            Power over Ethernet (PoE)
8         
Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?
            convergence
            redundant links
            link aggregation
            network diameter
9         
Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?
            scalability
            security
            redundancy
            maintainability
10        
What statement best describes a modular switch?
            a slim-line chassis
            allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane
            defined physical characteristics
            flexible characteristics
11        
A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)
            forwarding rate
            traffic flow analysis
            expected future growth
            number of required core connections
            number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance
12        
Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?
            Layer 1
            Layer 3
            Layer 4
            Layer 5
13        
For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?
            Power over Ethernet
            quality of service
            switch port security
            inter-VLAN routing
14        
Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?
            PoE
            redundancy
            aggregation
            access lists
15        
Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?
            Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.
            Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.
            Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.
            Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.
16        
At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?
            core layer
            distribution layer
            access layer
            entry layer
17        
Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)
            low port density
            high forwarding rate
            high latency level
            support link aggregation
            predefined number of ports
18        
Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?
            application
            access
            distribution
            network
            core
19        
Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)
            Power over Ethernet
            load balancing across redundant trunk links
            redundant components
            Quality of Service
            link aggregation
20        
A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?
            StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.
            StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.
            StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.
            StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

updated: MAY 2009 by bluefiz 100%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!

Wednesday, April 1, 2009

How to Auto Start Thunder at Any Time 自动启动迅雷在任何时刻

maybe you are a collague who is stayed with a group of people or blah blah blah
and the most suck thing you are sharing with  most the streamyx or blah blah blah broadband.
So, they have their rule to ensure they can surf the net without any lag.
Their rule: Only can download from 12:00AM to 6:00AM..

You said this is a great rule, it can ensure the line at home smooth before 12:00AM
you can still googling or blah blah blah before 12:00AM
but...
you want download something but it can only start from 12:00AM, are you gonna to wait at there til 12:00 AM and finally can open the thunder or other download application? Ow man, it definitely wasting my time!!!

As a result, I will show this "auto way" to all of you. If you using my method, you can go sleep at 8:00pm also but the thunder application will automatic start and the download progress will continue on anytime. Sound great, right?Let's start our tutorial :)

ll let your download progress continue when your thunder application is start.

Open your command prompt(Start->Run->cmd). Enter the command above. Dun forget to get your own thunder application path! The time also can be change as you want.

After execute the command(press enter), you will get the red border message which show you are successfully added one job.

Well.. you can now go to sleep and wait your thunder start automatically. ^o^

How to automatic shutdown your computer??
the red border show the time you want before shutdown. For instance, 3600 mean after one hour your computer will auto shutdown. the time unit is in second.

*all above method are tested in window xp only. I am not sure other OS is compatible.

You are welcome to ask me question ^o^

Sunday, November 23, 2008

CCNA Module 2 : All Chapter

The "guide/hint":

Blog 1

Blog 2

Blog 3

For those who intended to get 100% in test, PLEASE refer the 3 site above and made a comparison, then only you will get totally 100%, juz like me :)

more site will be added ^^

Wednesday, October 15, 2008

CCNA1 - Module 6 Exam Answers V.4

The 95% site : Link 
other site : http://ccna4exploration.blogspot.com
http://ccna-v4-academy.blogspot.com/
Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
• /24
• /16
• /20
• /27
• /25
• /28


2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
• 172.16.4.127 /26
• 172.16.4.155 /26
• 172.16.4.193 /26
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.159 /27
• 172.16.4.207 /27

3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
• NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
• Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
• Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
• IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based
• upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
• binary adding
• hexadecimal anding
• binary division
• binary multiplication
• binary ANDing


5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
• 172.168.33.1
• 10.35.66.70
• 192.168.99.5
• 172.18.88.90
• 192.33.55.89
• 172.35.16.5



8. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address.


9. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.192.0
• 172.16.192.128
• 172.16.192.160
• 172.16.192.168
• 172.16.192.176

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• LAN workstations
• servers
• network printers
• routers
• remote workstations
• laptops

12. hich of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
• larger address space
• faster routing protocols
• data types and classes of service
• authentication and encryption
• improved host naming conventions
• same addressing scheme as IPv4

13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
• security
• header format simplification
• expanded addressing capabilities
• addressing simplification

14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
• The router will discard the packet.
• The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
• The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
• The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
• Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
• There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
• The default gateway device is not operating.
• A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
• 128
• 64
• 48
• 32

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• The router has an incorrect gateway.
• Host A has an overlapping network address.
• Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
• NAT is required for the host A network.

18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
• identifies an individual device
• is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
• is altered as packet is forwarded
• varies in length
• is used to forward packets
• uses flat addressing

19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
• an internet
• a network
• an octet
• a radix
• Bottom of Form
• Top of Form
• Bottom of Form

20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
• 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
• 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.252
The 95% site : Link

Friday, October 10, 2008

CCNA1 - Module 4 Exam Answers V.4

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
• This is a UDP header.
• This contains a Telnet request.
• This contains a TFTP data transfer.
• The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
• This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
• 0 to 255
• 256 to 1022
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 2047
• 49153 to 65535

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
• create a Layer 1 jam signal
• reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
• send a RESET bit to the host
• change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
• to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
• to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
• to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
• to synchronize window size on the server
• to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
• identifies the destination network
• identifies source and destination hosts
• identifies the communicating applications
• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
• identifies the devices communicating over the local media

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
• session establishment
• segment retransmit
• data transfer
• session disconnect
• Bottom of Form

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
• The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
• The local host web session with a remote server
• There client session
• The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
• 192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
• destination logical address
• source physical address
• default gateway address
• source port

11. What are two features of the Us
er Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
• flow control
• low overhead
• connectionless
• connection-oriented
• sequence and acknowledgements

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
• sequence numbers
• session establishment
• window size
• acknowledgments

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• HTTP
• DNS

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
• sequencing
• flow control
• acknowledgments
• source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
• encapsulation
• flow control
• connectionless services
• session establishment
• numbering and sequencing
• best effort delivery

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
• The packets will not be delivered.
• The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
• The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
• The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
• acknowledgement of data delivery
• minimal delays in data delivery
• high reliability of data delivery
• same order data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
• 13
• 53
• 80
• 1024
• 1728

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
• The two applications exchange data.
• TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
• UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
• The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.



refer site :http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2008/10/ccna1-module-4-exam-answers-v4.html

CCNA1 - Module 5 Exam Answers V.4

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
• destination network address
• source network address
• source MAC address
• well known port destination address

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
• source and destination MAC
• source and destination application protocol
• source and destination port number
• source and destination IP address

3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
• The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
• type-of-service
• identification
• flags
• time-to-live
• header checksum

5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
• host portion
• broadcast address
• network portion
• gateway address

6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
• 192.135.250.1
• 192.31.7.1
• 192.133.219.0
• 192.133.219.1

7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.

8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
• dynamic
• interior
• static
• standard

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
• The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
• The router discards the packet.
• The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
• The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
• gateways
• purpose
• physical addressing
• software version
• geographic location
• ownership

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
• the MAC address of the interface of the router
• the destination Layer 4 port number
• the destination host address
• the next-hop address

13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• firewall
• access point
• bridge

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
• too few broadcasts
• performance degradation
• security issues

• limited management responsibility
• host identification
• protocol compatibility

15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7
• 8
11

16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
• If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
• If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
• If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
• 10.10.10.26
• 127.0.0.1
• 10.10.10.6
• 10.10.10.1
• 224.0.0.0

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
• Replace S2 with a router.
• Place all servers on S1.
• Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
• Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• require no device configuration
• provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
• require less processing power than static routes require
• consume bandwidth to exchange route information
• prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
• A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
• A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.