CCNA2 - Exploration4.0
1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0
2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
3
3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
155 seconds
5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm
7. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0
8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
30
9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.
10. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router
11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.
12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.
13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# no router rip
14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]
15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router
debug ip rip
16. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
10.0.0.0/8
18. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.
19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.
20. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
only the gateway router
updated: OCT 2009
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
Sunday, June 28, 2009
Friday, June 26, 2009
JUNE 2009 Exploration 4.0 (CCNA2) Module 4
CCNA2 - Exploration4.0
1. Which event will cause a triggered update?
a route is installed in the routing table
2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.
3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes
4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255
5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link
6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.
7. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.
8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.
9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.
10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
route poisoning
11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries
13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.
14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.
15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.
16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2
17. What is a routing loop?
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination
18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes
19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
16
20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?
adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route
21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
3
updated: OCT 2009
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
1. Which event will cause a triggered update?
a route is installed in the routing table
2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.
3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes
4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255
5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link
6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.
7. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.
8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.
9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.
10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
route poisoning
11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries
13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.
14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.
15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.
16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2
17. What is a routing loop?
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination
18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes
19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
16
20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?
adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route
21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
3
updated: OCT 2009
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
JUNE 2009 Exploration 4.0 (CCNA2) Module 3
1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip route
5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.
6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design
7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
shortest-path first calculations
10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.
13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing
14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.
15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".
16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
The administrative distance of this route is 1.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
The cost for this link has a value of 129.
19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
OSPF can be used between the routers.
20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
3
21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.
updated: OCT 2009
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip route
5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.
6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design
7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
shortest-path first calculations
10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.
13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing
14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.
15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".
16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
The administrative distance of this route is 1.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
The cost for this link has a value of 129.
19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
OSPF can be used between the routers.
20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
3
21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.
updated: OCT 2009
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
Thursday, June 25, 2009
JUNE 2009 Exploration 4.0 (CCNA2) Module 2
CCNA2 - Exploration4.0
4. What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.
5. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
6. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
7. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0
9. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21
11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.
12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device
13. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface.
14. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address
15. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
16. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route
18. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.
19. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25
20. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
21. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
22. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.
23. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
24. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
updated: OCT 2009
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
1. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface
2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
platform
holdtime
local interface
2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
4. What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.
5. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
6. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
7. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0
9. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21
11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.
12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device
13. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface.
14. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address
15. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
16. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route
18. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.
19. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25
20. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
21. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
22. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.
23. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
24. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
updated: OCT 2009
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
Wednesday, June 24, 2009
JUNE 2009 Exploration 4.0 (CCNA2) Module 1
CCNA2 - Exploration4.0
1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.
4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode
7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing
9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
10. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
1
4
20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory
21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config
22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination address.
updated: OCT 2009
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.
4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode
6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing
9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
10. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration.
15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header.
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table.
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface.
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration.
15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header.
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table.
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface.
16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over
17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded
19. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)cross-over
17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded
1
4
20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory
21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config
22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination address.
updated: OCT 2009
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
Wednesday, May 20, 2009
MAY 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 ESwitching Chapter 7 - LAN Switching and Wireless
updated: MAY 2009 by bluefiz 100%
1
What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?
beacon
password
probe request
association request
2
In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?
to keep users segregated on separate subnets
to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized
to keep signals from interfering with each other
to keep traffic secure
3
Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n
4
What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?
authentication
SSID broadcasting
MAC address filtering
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)
5
Which function is provided by a wireless access point?
dynamically assigns an IP address to the host
provides local DHCP services
converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
provides a gateway for connecting to other networks
6
Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?
This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.
The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.
Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.
Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired network.
7
Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)
802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.
802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.
802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.
802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.
8
What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?
Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.
Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.
Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.
Disable SSID broadcasts.
9
Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?
CSMA/CD
token passing
CSMA/CA
polling
10
Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)
MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.
Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.
Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.
Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.
Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast
11
Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)
gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures
built-in Ethernet switch
network management station
VTP server
wireless access point
VPN concentrator
12
What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?
association response
beacon
key
probe request
13
Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)
802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.
Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.
802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.
A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.
14
Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.
Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.
15
Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?
Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel
16
What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?
converts clear text data before transmission
indicates which channel the data should flow on
determines that the correct host is utilizing the network
allows the host to choose which channel to use
17
Why is security so important in wireless networks?
Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.
18
Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?
bandwidth saturation
privacy concerns
media contention
device interoperability
19
What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?
Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.
Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.
20
Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
site survey
risk assessment
scalability design
network protocol analysis
21
Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?
set up WEP on the access point only
set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it
set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open
set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open
updated: MAY 2009 by bluefiz 100%
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
MAY 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 ESwitching Chapter 6 - LAN Switching and Wireless
updated: MAY 2009 by bluefiz 100%
1 Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?
PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.
The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.
An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.
The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.
2
Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
one trunked link per VLAN
a management domain for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface
3
Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)
The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.
The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
The command configures a subinterface.
The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.
Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address.
4
Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
This design will not scale easily.
The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.
6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
7
What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.
The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.
8
Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.
When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to which the PC is connected.
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.
When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.
9
What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.
Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.
Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.
Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.
10
What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)
subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth
more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing
less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
11
A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.
12
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?
PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.
The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.
The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.
The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.
13
In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?
a network with more than 100 subnetworks
a network with a limited number of VLANs
a network with experienced support personnel
a network using a router with one LAN interface
14
Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?
Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.
Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.
Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.
Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.
15
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be successful.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.
16
What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?
Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.
Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.
17
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?
Port 0/4 is not active.
Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.
Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.
18
Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?
R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.
S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.
S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.
S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.
19
Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?
R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.
R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.
Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.
The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.
20
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.
Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?
The router interface is shut down.
The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.
All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.
The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.
The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
updated: MAY 2009 by bluefiz 100%
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
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