CCNA Cisco Routing Protocols and Concepts Final Exam Practice

CCNA Exploration 4.0 Module 4 all chapters Answers 
http://bluefiz.blogspot.com/2009/09/ccna-module-4-answers.html

1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It connects multiple IP networks.

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain

2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?ROM, TFTP server, flash

flash, TFTP server, ROM

flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
NVRAM, TFTP server, flash

3. Which router component is used to store the routing table?
Flash
NVRAM
ROM

SDRAM

4. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?

1
3

4

6

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.

Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

The static route will not work correctly

6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?

The packet will be dropped.

The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1

7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.

Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?

The packets will travel via R2-R1.

The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 on 172.16.1.0/24 network can reach the default gateway on R1. The rest of the routers are configured with the correct IP addresses on the interfaces. Routers R2 and R3 do not have static or dynamic routing enabled. How far will PC1 be able to successfully ping?

router R1 Fa0/0 interface

router R1 S0/0/0 interface

router R2 S0/0/0 interface
router R2 Fa0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces
router R3 Fa0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?

It will use the A-D path only.
It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.

The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

10. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

They are aware of the complete network topology.

They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only

11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?

Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

12. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)

IS-IS

EIGRP

OSPF

RIPv1
RIPv2

13. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)

R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1

R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0

S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0

R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?

R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.

R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?

All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.

Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.

The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?

Cisco001
Cisco123

Cisco789

Cisco901

17. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)

DCE

CSU/DSU

LAN switch

modem

hub

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

Router1
Router2
Router3

Router4

19. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.

ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.

The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
ABCD does not support switching capability.

20. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?
Change the routing metric for that route.
Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.
Change the administrative distance for that route.

Remove the route using the no ip route command.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.

One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
The default gateway has not been configured on host A.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.

Which ping will fail?

from R1 to 172.16.1.1

from R1 to 192.168.3.1

from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1

23. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet to R1

24. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the local network 172.16.1.0/24 complain that they are unable to connect to the Internet. What step should be taken to remedy the problem?

A new static route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
A new default route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 should be configured with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 must be replaced with a new static route and the next hop should be the R1 FastEthernet interface

25. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?

172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10

172.16.0.0/13

172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24

26. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?

the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1

the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1

the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

27. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

The default gateway is incorrect.
The address is in the wrong subnet.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.

192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?

the IP address of the server

the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server

29. Which network design feature requires the deployment of a classless routing protocol?
private IP addressing
advertising default routes

variable length subnet masks

summarization on major network boundaries

30. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface?
172.16.128.154/18
172.16.255.254/18
172.24.64.254/18

172.24.127.254/18

31. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?

Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.

RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.

32. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?

R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.

Automatic summarization is disabled.

The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used

33. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes.

It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.

It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down

34. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32

B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

A(config)# no router rip

35. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.

What is a possible cause of this problem?

The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.

R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.

36. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.

It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.

It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded

37. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)

Paris(config)# router eigrp 100

Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0

Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0

Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0

Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

38. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.

It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?

The JAX router has the wrong process ID.

The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command

40. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)

As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.

If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.

If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.

The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.

EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the routing table that is shown?

The packet is discarded.

The packet is flooded out all interfaces.
The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0.
The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.

42. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?
RIPv1
RIPv2

EIGRP

OSPF

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

Automatic summarization is disabled.

The EIGRP routing protocol is being used.

There is one feasible successor in the routing table.
The serial interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
The router is originating the route to 172.16.1.0/24 via the S0/0/0 interface

44. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?

The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.

The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs

45. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0

R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

46. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)

OSPF interval timers mismatch

administrative distance mismatch

interface network type mismatch

no loopback interface configured
gateway of last resort not redistributed

47. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface

the highest IP address of any logical interface

the highest IP address of any physical interface

the default gateway IP address
the priority value of 1 on any physical interface

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.

It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.

49. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?

Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured.
Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2.
Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.

The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process

50. Refer to the exhibit. The interface addresses and OSPF priorities are configured as shown. Because of the boot order of the routers, router A is currently the DR and router B is the BDR. If router A fails and is replaced the next day by a new router, router D, what OSPF protocol action or actions will happen?

Router D will be elected DR, and router C will become the BDR.

Router D will be elected DR, and router B will remain the BDR.
Router C will become the DR, and router B will become the BDR.
Router B will remain the BDR, and OSPF will function on the segment via the use of only the BDR

Basic Configuration of Cisco Router

While configure a cisco router, there are few kind of mode can be use:

1. User Mode
2. Priviledge Mode
3. Config Mode
4. Interface Mode
5. line mode

Cisco Router Basic Configuration Need:

1. Password + Secret
2. Hostname
3. Interface (IP and subnet mask, no shut, and clock rate)
4. Line configuration

Below are some coding on Basic configuration for cisco router:
Enter Privilege Mode
Router > enable
Enter Configuration Mode
Router# configuration terminal
Password need when enter into Privilege Mode next time

Router(config)# enable password p@ssw0rd
Router(config)#enable secret s3cr3t
Configure Hostname / Router Name

Router(config)#hostname myrouter1
[Set the hostname to myrouter1]
Configure Ethernet Port Command
myrouter1(config)# inte f0/0
[Enter Ethernet Interface Mode ( f0/0 for interface1, f0/1 for interface 2)]
myrouter1(config-if)# ip add 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.0
[Set IP address and subnet mask]
myrouter1(config-if)#no shut
[Active the port]
Configure Serial Port Command
myrouter1(config-if)#inte s 0/0/0
[Enter Serial Interface Mode]
myrouter1(config-if)#ip add 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
[Set IP address and subnet mask]
myrouter1(config-if)#no shut
[Active the port]
Set the Router Bandwidth – Set the bandwidth to 1G, Clock Rate only apply at Master Router
myrouter1(config-if)#clock rate 1000000
[Set the bandwidth to 1Gig]
myrouter1(config-if)#exit
Secure Console
myrouter1(config)#line con 0
myrouter1(config-line)#password c0ns0l3

myrouter1(config-line)#login
myrouter1(config-line)#exit
Secure Aux line – Auxiliary Password, use to connect a modem to a router for remote console connection, Aux only available for old router, new router does not apply
myrouter1(config)#line aux0
myrouter1(config-line)#password auXo

myrouter1(config-line)#login
myrouter1(config-line)#exit
Secure VTY line – Virtual Terminal Password, Use to secure your login from telnet or ssh
myrouter1(config)#line vty 0 4
myrouter1(config-line)#password v1rtu@1
myrouter1(config-line)#login
myrouter1(config-line)#exit
myrouter1(config)#exit
Save setting
myrouter1#wr me

or
myrouter1#copy run start

The above code are just a very basic configuration for cisco router, there are more advance configuration need for routing purpose such as static routes, default routes and dynamic routes. Within dynamic routes, there are also RIP Routes (Routing Information Protocol), IGRP Routes (Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) OSPF Routes (Open Shortest Path First) and EIGRP Routes (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

Telekom Malaysia high speed broadband unveiled

By JO TIMBUONG

intech@thestar.com.my

PETALING JAYA: UniFi — Telekom Malaysia’s(TMpoint) just launched high speed broadband service — comes in three packages.

Residential subscribers can opt for a 5-megabits per second (Mbps), 10Mbps or 20Mbps connection to the Internet.

The 5Mbps package is priced at RM149 per month, the 10Mbps at RM199, and the 20Mbps at RM249. The subscribers will have to sign on for two years.

Each package also comes with a Dect (Digital Enhanced Cordless Telecommunications) phone, a set-top box for IPTV (Internet Protocol Television), Streamyxzone ID for wireless web access, and a 2GB e-mail box.

Subscribers will also enjoy synchronous upload and download speeds, unlike with the ADSL service now where upload speeds are slower than download speeds.

Telekom Malaysia has also capped the amount of data that can be downloaded using each of the packages, in an effort to maintain high surfing speeds.

The 5Mbps package has a 60GB monthly cap on downloads; the 10Mbps package has a 90GB cap, and the 20Mbps package has a 120GB cap. To compare, a typical two-hour high-definition movie is about 8GB in size.

However, some industry pundits have pointed out that the caps are calculated on a daily basis, which restricts the amount of data that can be downloaded each day in a month.

UniFi is now available in Shah Alam, Subang Jaya, Taman Tun Dr Ismail and Bangsar, in the Klang Valley. It will be rolled out to more areas nationwide over the next two years.

There are business packages available for corporate subscribers. As with the home user service, these are also divided into 5Mbps, 10Mbps and 20Mbps packages.

There are no caps on the corporate packages, but prices are much higher. Companies will have to pay RM199 a month for 5Mbps, RM599 for 10Mbps, and RM899 for 20Mbps.

Telekom Malaysia is holding a press conference at its headquarters this afternoon. More details after this event.

Published: Thursday March 25, 2010 MYT 3:26:00 PM

CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals – Final exam

01. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?

• IP
• UDP
• Ethernet
• a connectionless acknowledgement
• an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service

02. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

• Connection 1 – rollover cable
  Connection 2 – straight-through cable
  Connection 3 – crossover cable

• Connection 1 – crossover cable
  Connection 2 – rollover cable
  Connection 3 – crossover cable
  
  

• Connection 1 – straight-through cable
  Connection 2 – crossover cable
  Connection 3 – crossover cable

• Connection 1 – straight-through cable
  Connection 2 – crossover cable
  Connection 3 – straight-through cable

• Connection 1 – crossover cable
  Connection 2 – straight-through cable
  Connection 3 – crossover cable

03. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

• application
• presentation
• session
• transport

04. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

• 00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
• 198.133.219.25:80
• http://www.cisco.com
• C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

05. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

• Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
• Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
• Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
• Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
• Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.

06. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

• 10 Base-T
• 10 Base-2
• 10 Base-5
• 100 Base-FX
• 100 Base TX
• 1000 Base LX

07. Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

• IP address of the host
• default gateway of the host
• IP address of the homepage for the host
• primary domain name server for the host
• IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local

08. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

09. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three)

• uses a flat structure
• prevent broadcasts
• heirarchical
• uniquely identifies each host
• 48 bits in length
• contains a network portion

10. Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

11. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

• IP address incorrectly entered
• network cables unplugged
• subnet mask incorrectly entered
• network card failure

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

• leaving host A
• leaving ATL
• leaving Dallas
• leaving NYC

13. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)

• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The data is flowing from server to client.
• The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
• The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

14. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

• Host A was assigned a network address.
• Host B was assigned a multicast address.
• Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
• The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

15. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

• 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
• 200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
• 150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
• 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
• 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
• 127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

16. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

• 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

17. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

• vty
• aux
• console
• enable secret
• enable password

18. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

• TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.










• TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.






• UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.






• TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.






• TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

• when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
• when the interface timers have been cleared
• when the connected DTE device is shut down
• when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)

• physical addressing
• encoding
• routing
• cabling
• media access control

21. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

• access point
• host
• hub
• router
• switch

22. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three)

• 192.168.18.38
• 192.168.18.48
• 192.168.18.49
• 192.168.18.52
• 192.168.18.59
• 192.168.18.63

23. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two)

Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login

• The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
• The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
• The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
• Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
• Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

24. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128

25. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?

• The data is automatically encrypted.
• A Telnet server process is running on PC1.
• The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.
• A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

• segment1
• segment2
• segment3
• segment4
• segment5

27.  Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

• The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
• The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
• The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /27.
• The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

28. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

• 172.16.4.63 /26
• 172.16.4.129 /26
• 172.16.4.191 /26
• 172.16.4.51 /27
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.221 /27

29. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

• IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
• IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
• IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
• IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
• IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
• IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

30. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

• service port number
• host logical address
• device physical address
• virtual connection identifier

31. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?

• two networks routing the packets
• two applications communicating the data
• two hosts at either end of the communication
• two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

32. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?

• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multiaccess
• mesh

34. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP
and MAC addresses in this communication?

• Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
• Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
• Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
• Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
• Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
• Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94

35. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?

• The packet will be dropped.
• The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
• The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
• The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

36. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

• A, B, D, G
• A, B, E, F
• C, D, G, I
• G, H, I, J

37.  Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

• 127.0.0.1
• 192.168.64.196
• 192.168.254.1
• 192.168.254.9
• 192.168.254.254

38. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

• Switch-6J>
• Switch-6J#
• Switch-6J(config)#
• Switch-6J(config-if)#
• Switch-6J(config-line)#

39. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

• console
• enable
• enable secret
• VTY

40. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

• 0 to 255
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 49151
• 49152 to 65535

41. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two)

• This is a server response.
• The UDP protocol is being used.
• The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
• The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
• The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.

42. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

• Flash
• NVRAM
• RAM
• ROM

43.  Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two)

• A single broadcast domain is present
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• Three broadcast domains are shown.
• Four networks are needed.
• Five collision domains exist.

44. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three)

• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
• A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
• The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
• All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

45. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?

• an FTP client
• a Telnet client
• a terminal emulation program
• a web browser

46. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1?

• Athens
• Ankara
• London
• Paris
• PC4

47. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

• only computer D
• only computer A and computer D
• only computer B, computer C, and computer D
• all computers

48. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

• address translation
• DHCP services
• ftpd
• web server

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

• issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
• issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
• issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
• issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

CCNA Exploration 4,0: Network Fundamentals – Chapter 9 Exam

Chapter 9 Exam Answer
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!



01. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

02. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

03. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

04. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time

05. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

06. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

07. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

08. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

09. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer

10. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link Control sublayer
• Network layer

11. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

13. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

• Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.
• Host A will send on to the media a broadcast frame that contains the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
• Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.
• Host A will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC that is the MAC address associated with 172.16.224.1.

14. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications

15. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access

16. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol
• makes the connection with the upper layers
• identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

17. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)




• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?

• preamble and stop frame
• network layer packet
• physical addressing
• FCS and SoF

20. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!

CCNA 1 Exploration 4.0 : Module 1 Answers with Explanation

CCNA stands for Cisco Certified Network Associate. This page contains the examination questions and answers of CCNA 1 Module 1 of CCNA Exploration 4.0. All the questions are taken form different pay-sites, blogs and webpages which are offering several question sets. This page doesn't contain 100% actual question. The questions of CCNA are changing continuously. But don't feel sorrow. I think you will get 50% to 100% questions form here in your examination. All the questions and answers are explained here very carefully.

Credits to rancidTaste :)



Question 01
The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)

1. debugging.
2. password recovery.
3. routing data between networks.
4. troubleshooting.
5. connecting one router to another.

Correct answer: 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: By using router console port you can configure router, can set password and recover password, troubleshooting etc. So, options 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers. But to route data between networks, you need to define routing protocol. So, option 3 is incorrect. To connect one router to another you need a physical medium. There is no use of console port. So, option 5 is incorrect.

Question 02

Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)

1. holds the startup configuration by default.
2. can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
3. stores Cisco IOS software images.
4. stores routing table information by default.
5. maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.

Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation: Flash memory is an erasable, programmable read-only memory which holds operating system image and microcode. It allows software to be updated without removing any chips and content remain when powered down pr restart. For this reason, 2 and 3 are the correct answers.

Question 03

Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

1. stores the routing table.
2. retains contents when power is removed.
3. stores the startup configuration file.
4. contains the running configuration file.
5. stores the ARP table.

Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation: NVRAM stores the backup/startup configuration file for the router. It retains conten when the router is powered down or restarted.

Question 04

Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

1. They are non-network connections.
2. They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
3. They are synchronous serial ports.
4. They are used for initial router configuration.
5. They are asynchronous serial ports.
6. They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

Correct answer: 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: Management connections of Cisco router are used to configuration router. These are non-network connections. So, option 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers. Option 3 and 4 are not correct because it's not a synchronous or asynchronous serial ports. Management connections has no IP address. So, option 6 is not also the correct answer. So, options 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers.

Question 05

An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)

1. switching.
2. static addressing.
3. IETF standardization.
4. dynamic or static routing.
5. consistent end-to-end addressing.
   

Correct answer: 1, 4 and 5
Explanation: Internetwork includes switching, dynamic or static routing and it's capable of addressing at the end-to-end addressing. So, option 1, 4 and 5 are correct. Internetwork doesn't include IETF standardization or static addressing.

Question 06

Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)

1. contains startup configuration file.
2. stores routing table.
3. holds fast switching cache.
4. retains contents when power is removed.
5. stores running configuration file.

Correct answer: 2, 3 and 5
Explanation: Cisco RAM has the following characteristics:

• stores routing information
• address resolution protocol (ARP)
• fast-switching cache
• packet buffering
• packet hold queues
• RAM contents are lost if power is down or restarted
• provides temporary running memory.

For the above reasons, 2, 3 and 5 options are correct.

Question 07

Terminal emulatror software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

1. bits per second.
2. data bits.
3. parity.
4. stop bits.
5. flow control.

Correct answer: 2 3 and 4

Question 08

Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)

1. a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
2. a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
3. a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
4. a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
5. straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
6. a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
   

Correct answer: 5 and 6
Explanation:
Straight-through cables are used for the following types of cabling:

• switch to router
• switch to PC or server
• hub to PC or server

Crossover cables are used for the following types of cabling:

• switch to switch
• PC to PC
• hub to hub
• router to router
• router to PC

For the above reasons 5 and 6 are the only true answers.

Question 09

Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)

1. can be accessed remotely.
2. does not depend on network services.
3. displays startup and error messages by default.
4. does not require special components.

Answer:

Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation:  Console connection doesn't depend on networking services. Moreover, by using this type of connection the startup and error message can be easily captured. That's why 2 and 3 are the correct answers. And the others are not true answers.

Question 10

What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?

1. ARP tables.
2. bridging tables.
3. routing tables.
4. switching tables.

Correct answer: 3
Explanation: Router has a routing table and the routing table is used for outgoing data packets. So, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 11

Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)

1. troubleshooting problems.
2. monitoring the system.
3. capturing LAN data packets.
4. configuring the router.
5. routing data packets.

Correct answer: 1, 2 and 5
Explanation: By using management connection, you can configure router, troubleshoot and monitor the system. So, 1, 2 and 5 are the correct answers.

Question 12

Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)

1. CPU.
2. hard drive.
3. input/output interfaces.
4. keyboard.
5. monitor.
6. system bus.

Correct answer: 1, 3 and 6
Explanation: A router doesn't have any monitor, keyboard and hard drive. So, 2, 4 and 5 are the incorrect answer. The correct answers are 1, 3 and 6.

Question 13

Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?

1. connects peripherals in a single location.
2. connects multiple networks in a single building.
3. provides connectivity on a LAN.
4. provides connectivity over a large geographic area.
   

Correct answer: 4
Explanation:WAN means Wide Area Network which connects a large geographical area network. So, 4 is the only one correct answer.

Question 14

ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)

1. straight-through cable.
2. terminal emulation software.
3. rollover cable.
4. RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
5. V.35 cable.

Correct answer: 2 3 and 4
Explanation: To connect a PC and a router, you need one rollover cable, RJ-45 to DB-9 connectors and you need a software which is the terminal emulator software. So, 2, 3 and 4 are the correct answers.

Question 15

During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?

1. twisted
2. crossover
3. rollover
4. straight

Correct answer: 3
Explanation: To connect a PC and a router, a crossover cable is used. But when you are configuring your router, then a rollover cable is used. For more explanation, see explanation of question 08.

Question 16

What contains the instructions that a router uses control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?

1. packet configuration.
2. configuration files.
3. flash memory.
4. internal components.

Correct answer: 2
Explanation: Only the configuration file can control the flow of traffic through its interface.So, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 17

Which of the followings are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)

1. provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
2. connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
3. can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
4. hold the IOS image.
5. connect the router to LANs and WANs.

Correct answer: 2 3 and 5
Explanation: By using a router, you can connect LANs and WANS. So, option 5 is correct. All the interfaces are placed on motherboard. So, option 3 is also correct. By using the interfaces the packets are coming and out. So, option 2 is also correct. So, option 2, 3 and 5 are the correct answers.

Question 18

Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)

1. hubs.
2. routers.
3. communication servers.
4. transceivers.
5. modems.
6. multi-port repeaters.

Correct answer: 2 3 and 5
Explanation:
WAN is used to communicate large distance network. So, routers, communication servers and modems are used here. So, 2, 3 and 5 are the correct answers.

Question 19

Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?

1. volatile random access memory.
2. read only memory.
3. non-volatile random access memory.
4. flash memory.

Correct answer: 3
Explanation: See the explanation of question 3.

Question 20

Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)

1. physical layer.
2. application layer.
3. transport layer.
4. data link layer.
5. session layer.

Correct answer: 1, 4
Explanation: Physical layer, Data Link layer and Network Layer are the incorporated in WAN standards. So, 1 and 4 are the correct answers.

© Written by rancidTaste

Disclaimer: Please use this information wisely. Use it as study reference rather than just copy and paste the answer. 

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OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 8 - Accessing the WAN

 updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%  

1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
- cable types
- connector types
- interface identifiers
- DLCI for virtual circuits
- operating system versions

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
- physical
- data link
- network
- transport

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
- incorrect encapsulation
- incorrect STP configuration
- incorrect ARP mapping
- incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
- information about the network design
- IP addressing allocation on the network
- requirements about the service provider setup
- requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
- expected performance under normal operating conditions

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)


- Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
- Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
- Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
- Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
- Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
- TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
- The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
- Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
- The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
- The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
- The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
- The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
- Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center.
- The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
- Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
- bottom up
- top down
- divide and conquer
- middle out

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
- baselining tool
- knowledge base
- protocol analyzer
- cable tester

10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
- cable analyzer
- network analyzer
- protocol analyzer
- knowledge base

11. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?


- physical
- data link
- network
- application

12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
- narrowing the scope
- gathering symptoms from suspect devices - analyzing existing symptoms
- determining ownership

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
- A carrier detect signal is present.
- Keepalives are being received successfully.
- Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
- Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
- The reliability of this link is very low.
- The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

- The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
- Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
- The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
- An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
- The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
- application
- transport
- network
- data link
- physical

16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
- physical
- data link
- network
- transport

17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
- 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
- 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
- 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
- 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
- physical layer
- data link layer
- network layer
- transport layer
- application layer

19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
- All layers
- Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
- Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
- Layer 6 and Layer 7

20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
- Determine fault.
- Get to know the user to build trust.
- Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
- Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
- Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
- Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
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