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Thursday, June 2, 2011

CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals – Chapter 2 Exam


01. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
  • determine pathways for data
  • initiate data communications
  • retime and retransmit data signals
  • originate the flow of data
  • manage data flows
  • final termination point for data flow
02. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
  • define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
  • dictate how to accomplish layer functions
  • outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
  • limit the need for hardware compatibility
  • require layer dependent encapsulations
  • eliminate standardization among vendors
03. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)
  • tracks delay between end devices
  • enables consistent network paths for communication
  • allows modification of the original data before transmission
  • identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
  • ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
04. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
  • supports error detection
  • ensures ordered arrival of data
  • provides delivery to correct destination
  • identifies the devices on the local network
  • assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
05. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
  • Network
  • Transport
  • Physical
  • Data Link
  • Session
06.  What is a PDU?
  • corruption of a frame during transmission
  • data reassembled at the destination
  • retransmitted packets due to lost communication
  • a layer specific encapsulation
07. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
  • manage data flows
  • originate data flow
  • retime and retransmit data signals
  • determine pathways for data
08.
Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”
  • the destination device
  • an end device
  • an intermediate device
  • a media device
09.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
  • Network A — WAN
  • Network B — WAN
  • Network C — LAN
  • Network B — MAN
  • Network C — WAN
  • Network A – LAN
10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
  • A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
  • The network is administered by a single organization.
  • The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
  • The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
  • A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
  • Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
  • piping
  • PDU
  • streaming
  • multiplexing
  • encapsulation
12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
  • to identify devices on the local media
  • to identify the hops between source and destination
  • to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
  • to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
  • to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
13. What device is considered an intermediary device?
  • file server
  • IP phone
  • laptop
  • printer
  • switch
14.
Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?
  • source
  • end
  • transfer
  • intermediary
15.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
  • WAN
  • MAN
  • LAN
  • WLAN
16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
  • physical
  • data link
  • network
  • transport
17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
  • the destination device on the local media
  • the destination host address
  • the bits that will be transferred over the media
  • the source application or process creating the data
18.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
  • A, C, D
  • B, E, G, H
  • C, D, G, H, I, J
  • D, E, F, H, I, J
  • E, F, H, I, J
19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
  • No address is added.
  • The logical address is added.
  • The physical address is added.
  • The process port number is added.
20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
  • path determination and packet switching
  • data presentation
  • reliability, flow control, and error detection
  • network media control
  • the division of segments into packets
21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
  • physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
  • application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
  • application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
  • application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
  • presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

Friday, May 20, 2011

Is that possible to use other streamyx account?

Yes. Indeed.

For example, if your streamyx account is only basic 512K, but you got no money to upgrade to 1Mbps to watch youtube without buffering, therefore you can try out this trick how to hack other people streamyx account and use at your own place.

Disclaimer: Use this trick at your own risk !!

before year 2009, most of the streamyx customer was given default password as tmnet123. Therefore using this exploit, we can easily get the others streamyx account, all we need to do is try our luck to get the streamyx account username.

Please go to https://tmbill.tm.net.my/SelfCare/Maintenance/selfcareLogin.jsp to enter the username and password. If error as above appear, that means you might enter the wrong username or password. Try another account  instead.

Once you enter the correct password and username, the message as picture above will shown. That's mean the account can be use at your own place d ! However we can only check out the internet speed only when we are successfully connect using the username and password.

Once you get the correct password and username, just log in to your modem/router and modify the connection setting. Each router may have different configuration, please refer to the respective user manual of your router/modem. Here we are using the free modem given by the streamyx as example.

If you wondering when you are using other people's streamyx account, will the people disconnected or their internet speed will be slowed down? The answer is they won't be disconnected because their account can be logged in by many users at the same time. Yes, their internet speed will be slow down, because you are using his account and thus you are sharing speed with him, so please behave yourself, DO NOT open ppstream when you are using other's people account because ppstream can eat up the 90% speed!!! Imagine u are stealing his account and you are greedy use up the 90% speed for the ppstream, his got 10% internet speed only, he pay RM88 every month to get 10% speed only? do you feel guilty? Haha.  - quoted from http://ye5.blogspot.com/2010/12/hack-streamyx-account.html
But the question is how can you get many username to test it out?
The answer is simple. Use google to get it !!
Try search on the google using this string  - "contact us intext:@streamyx.com", and you can possibly get million of streamyx account username. =)

Monday, March 28, 2011

CCNA netowork fundamentals Final Exam Answers 2011

1. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login

The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.

The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.

The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".

Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.

Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.



2. Which two actions could be taken by a router if a specific match is not made to a route in the routing table? (Choose two.)

The packet will be discarded.

The packet will be sent back to the source.

The packet will be flooded out all interfaces.

Neighboring routers are polled to find the best path.


The packet will be forwarded to a default route if one is present.



3.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?

The Telnet server process is running on PC1.

Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.

The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.

The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.



4.

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

The prefix of the subnet mask is /26.

The network on which this computer resides can have 30 hosts.

The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.

The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.

The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.

The IP address that is assigned as the default gateway is valid for this host.



5. What information can be gathered by using the command netstat?

the default gateway

the routing protocol

active TCP connections

the locally configured subnet mask



6.

Refer to the exhibit. The nslookup command that is shown was issued on a Windows PC host. What does the 10.32.5.74 address represent?

the IP address of the host

the default gateway for the host

the primary DNS server for the host

the home page address for the host



7.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?

The data is automatically encrypted.

A Telnet server process is running on PC1.

The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.

A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.



8. Which three addresses are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.1

46.1.1.88

172.31.31.10

172.32.16.10

192.168.8.8



9.

Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?

Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.

The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.

The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.

The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.



10. Which OSI layer addressing is required to route packets between two networks?

Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4



11. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?

The contents of ROM will change.

The contents of RAM will change.

The contents of NVRAM will change.

The contents of flash will change.



12. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.

Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.

Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.

Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.

Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.



13. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?

255.255.0.0

255.255.254.0

255.255.252.0


255.255.248.0

255.255.240.0

255.255.255.128



14.

Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

only computer D

only computer A and computer D

only computer B, computer C, and computer D

all computers



15.

Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)


The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.


The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.

The cable is unusable and must be rewired.

The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.

The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.



16.



Refer to the exhibit. Which layered network model is shown in the diagram?

Cisco

IETF

OSI

TCP/IP



17. An administrator makes changes to the default configuration of a router and saves them to NVRAM. After testing, it is discovered that the configurations did not have the desired effect and must be removed. What steps must be taken to remove the changes and return the router to the default configuration?

Reboot the router.

Use no version of the commands that are issued.

Issue the erase startup-config command, and then reboot the router.

Issue the erase running-config command, and then reboot the router.



18.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?

Host A is assigned a network address.

Host B is assigned a multicast address.

Host A and host B belong to different networks.

The gateway addresses are network addresses.



19.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has made several changes to R1 since the configuration has last been saved. The modified configuration did not produce the desired changes. The technician wants to store a backup copy of the saved configuration on a TFTP server before reloading. Which action will cause the unmodified data to be saved on the TFTP server?



20. What can the user do from the command prompt, Router(config-line)# ?

Configure one of the network interfaces.

Configure one of the physical or virtual lines.

Verify the running configuration on the device.

Configure the parameters for one of the routing protocols.



21.

Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?

Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.

Use the ipconfig command.

Use the ipconfig/all command.

Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.



22.


Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?

Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.

Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.

Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0

Reboot the router.



23. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

console

enable

enable secret

VTY



24. What are two purposes for configuring a banner on a router? (Choose two.)

to announce system downtime

to prevent unauthorized access to the router

to provide a description of interface connections

to assist in legal prosecution for unauthorized access


to provide a welcome message to users who access the router



25.

Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?

Use the ipconfig command at the host.

Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.

Use the tracert command at the host.

Use the ping command at the destination.



26.

Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?

D,E,F,G

A,H,B,C

A,D,E,F

A,D,E,G



27. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

when the interface is functioning as a DTE device

when the interface timers have been cleared

when the connected DTE device is shut down

when the interface is functioning as a DCE device



28. Which table accurately associates the RFC 1918 private IP addresses with the correct network mask?
Answer No. 1




29.


Refer to the exhibit. Which two layers of the OSI model describe the same functions as the transport and internet layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

application layer

presentation layer

session layer

transport layer


network layer

data link layer

physical layer



30. What happens when a host station receives a frame that contains its own MAC address in the destination field?

The Layer 2 information is removed and the frame is pushed up to Layer 3.

The host station will copy the information to its buffers and send it back out.

The frame originated from the host and will be ignored.

The Layer 3 information is added to the frame.



31.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is configured with the correct IP address for the default gateway of the router R1 FastEthernet0/1 interface. How will a packet that is sent from host A to host B be handled by the devices on the network?

R1 will drop the packet because R1 does not have a specific route in its routing table to the 10.1.1.0/24 network.


R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will forward the packet to the directly connected network 10.1.1.0/24.

R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will drop the packet because it does not have a default route to network 10.1.1.0/24.

R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will drop the packet because it does not have a route that is learned by a routing protocol to network 10.1.1.0/24.



32. What type of network is maintained if a server takes no dedicated role in the network?

mainframe

client/server

peer-to-peer

centralized



33. In a network design project, a network designer needs to select a device to provide collision free connections to 40 hosts on the LAN. Which device should be selected?

hub

router

switch

firewall



34. Which TCP/IP model layer creates additional overhead on network resources due to acknowledgments, tracking, and retransmission of data?

internet

transport

application

network access



35. How many host addresses may be assigned when using the 128.107.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

30

256

2046

2048

4094

4096



36. Which service is used when the nslookup command is issued on a computer?

FTP

DNS

DHCP

Telnet



37. Which process provides the means to send and receive data when running multiple applications at the same time on a computer?

interleaving

sequencing

segmentation

acknowledgement



38. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)

10.1.12.79/28

10.1.12.113/28

10.1.12.32/28

10.1.11.5/27


10.1.11.97/27

10.1.11.128/27



39. What is the consequence of issuing the erase startup-config command in privileged EXEC mode on a Cisco router?

Data stored in RAM will be removed.

Data stored in NVRAM will be erased.

Information in flash memory will be removed.

Flags in the configuration register will be set to 0.

Both the startup-config and the running-config will be erased.



40.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2

IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5

IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1

IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18



41. What is the Cisco IOS?

system software for Cisco devices

Read Only Memory in Cisco devices

non-volatile storage for device configurations

an initial operating system that is used for boot functions



42. Which router configuration mode will require user authentication if an administrator issues the enable secret command?

user executive mode

privileged executive mode

global configuration mode

service specific configuration mode



43. Which command or commands will require authentication to access the privileged exec mode?

RTRA(config)# enable secret cisco
RTRA(config)# service password encryption

RTRA(config)# line con 0
RTRA(config-line)# login
RTRA(config-line)# password cisco

RTRA(config)# line vty 0 4
RTRA(config-line)# login
RTRA(config-line)# password cisco



44. A routing issue has occurred in your internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

access point

host

hub

router

switch



45. Which statement is true about Layer 3 addresses?

They are physical addresses.

They are used in routing decisions.

They are only used on local networks.

They are altered each time a packet crosses a router.



46.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator on PC1 wants to view some HTML code from a web page housed on the web server. Which client application will allow this request to be started?




47. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

application

presentation

session

transport



48.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?

10.0.0.254

192.168.0.249

192.168.0.250

10.0.1.254



49. An administrator is in the middle of entering a lengthy command when suddenly output from the IOS appears stating that an interface has gone down and then up again. Consequently, the command that the administrator was typing is no longer legible on the terminal. What CLI keystrokes can be entered to return to the line that the administrator was typing?

Ctrl-D

Ctrl-K

Ctrl-R


Ctrl-Z



50. Which option represents a point-to-point logical topology diagram?

Answer No. 4



51. Which physical component is used to access and perform the initial configuration on a new unconfigured router?

Answer No. 2

52. Which option shows how a router will route packets to a remote network?

Answer No. 4

Thursday, February 10, 2011

Subnet Calculator for CCNA Exam

Online Subnet Calculator

The IP Subnet Mask Calculator enables subnet network calculations using network class, IP address, subnet mask, subnet bits, mask bits, maximum required IP subnets and maximum required hosts per subnet.

http://www.subnet-calculator.com/

http://www.subnetmask.info/

http://www.warriorsofthe.net/utils/index.html

http://www.vlsm-calc.net/



Thursday, November 4, 2010

CCNA Security Chapter 6 Quiz

CCNA Security Chapter 6 Quiz - link

1. When configuring a switch port for port security, what is the
default violation mode?
(A)protect
(B)reset
(C)restrict
(D) shutdown

2. As a recommended practice for Layer 2 security, how should
VLAN 1 be treated?
(A)All access ports should be assigned to VLAN 1.
(B)All trunk ports should be assigned to VLAN 1.
(C)VLAN 1 should be used for management traffic.
(D) VLAN 1 should not be used.

3. What happens when the MAC address notification feature is
enabled on a switch?
(A)An SDEE alert is generated, and the switch resets the
interface when an invalid MAC address is detected.
(B)An STP multicast notification packet is forwarded to all
switches any time a change in the network topology is
detected.
(C)A port violation occurs when a MAC address outside of the
range of allowed addresses transmits traffic over a secure
port.
(D) An SNMP trap is sent to the network management system
whenever a new MAC address is added to or an old address is
deleted from the forwarding tables.

4. How is a reflector port used in an RSPAN configuration?
(A)It provides a dedicated connection for the IDS device.
(B)It allows an RSPAN session to be backward compatible with a
SPAN session.
(C)It acts like a loopback interface in that it reflects the captured
traffic to the RSPAN VLAN.
(D) It allows an IDS device to direct malicious traffic to it,isolating that traffic from other areas of the network.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output generated by thesh ow
monitor session 1 command, how will SPAN operate on the
switch?
(A)All traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on VLAN 20 is
forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.
(B)All traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from VLAN 20 is
forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.
(C)Native VLAN traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from
VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.
(D) Native VLAN traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on
VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.

6. Which Cisco endpoint security product helps maintain network
stability by providing posture assessment, quarantining of
noncompliant systems, and remediation of noncompliant
systems?
(A)Cisco Access Control Server
(B)Cisco Security Agent workstation
(C)Cisco Intrusion Prevention System router
(D) Cisco Network Admission Control appliance

7. Which two elements are part of the Cisco strategy for addressing
endpoint security? (Choose two.)
(A)policy compliance using products such as Cisco NAC
(B)network infection monitoring using products such as Cisco
Secure ACS
(C)threat protection using products such as Cisco Security Agent
(D) attack detection using products such as Cisco NAC

8. With IP voice systems on data networks, which two types of
attacks target VoIP specifically? (Choose two.)
(A)CoWPAtty
(B)Kismet
(C)SPIT
(D) virus
(E)vishing

9. Which three statements are true regarding SPAN and RSPAN?
(Choose three.)
(A)SPAN can send a copy of traffic to a port on another switch.
(B)RSPAN is required for syslog and SNMP implementation.
(C)SPAN can be configured to send a copy of traffic to a
destination port on the same switch.
(D) SPAN can copy traffic on a source port or source VLAN to a
destination port on the same switch.
(E)RSPAN is required to copy traffic on a source VLAN to a
destination port on the same switch.
(F) RSPAN can be used to forward traffic to reach an IDS that is
analyzing traffic for malicious behavior.

10. How many Cisco Security Agent clients can one Management
Center for CSA console support?
(A)1,000
(B)10,000
(C)100,000
(D) 1,000,000

11. Which option best describes a MAC address spoofing attack?
(A)An attacker gains access to another host and masquerades as
the rightful user of that device.
(B)An attacker alters the MAC address of his host to match
another known MAC address of a target host.
(C)An attacker alters the MAC address of the switch to gain
access to the network device from a rogue host device.

12. Which software tool can a hacker use to flood the MAC address
table of a switch?
(A)macof
(B)Cisco SDM
(C)kiwi syslog server
(D) protocol analyzer

13. Which attack relies on the default automatic trunking
configuration on most Cisco switches?
(A)LAN storm attack
(B)VLAN hopping attack
(C)STP manipulation attack
(D) MAC address spoofing attack

14. Which attack is mitigated by using port security?
(A)LAN storm
(B)VLAN hopping
(C)STP manipulation
(D) MAC address table overflow

15. Which two measures are recommended to mitigate VLAN
hopping attacks? (Choose two.)
(A)Use a dedicated native VLAN for all trunk ports.
(B)Place all unused ports in a separate guest VLAN.
(C)Disable trunk negotiation on all ports connecting to
workstations.
(D) Enable DTP on all trunk ports.
(E)Ensure that the native VLAN is used for management traffic.

16. Which three are SAN transport technologies? (Choose three.)
(A)Fibre Channel
(B)SATA
(C)iSCSI
(D) IP PBX
(E)FCIP

17. Which technology is used to protect the switched infrastructure
from problems caused by receiving BPDUs on ports that should
not be receiving them?
(A)RSPAN
(B)PortFast
(C)Root guard
(D) Loop guard
(E)BPDU guard

18. If a switch is configured with thesto rm-con tro l command and
the action shutdown and action trap parameters, which two
actions does the switch take when a storm occurs on a port?
(Choose two.)
(A)The port is disabled.
(B)The switch is rebooted.
(C)An SNMP log message is sent.
(D) The port is placed in a blocking state.
(E)The switch forwards control traffic only.

19. An administrator wants to prevent a rogue Layer 2 device from
intercepting traffic from multiple VLANs on a network. Which two
actions help mitigate this type of activity? (Choose two.)
(A)Disable DTP on ports that require trunking.
(B)Place unused active ports in an unused VLAN.
(C)Secure the native VLAN, VLAN 1, with encryption.
(D) Set the native VLAN on the trunk ports to an unused VLAN.
(E)Turn off trunking on all trunk ports and manually configure
each VLAN as required on each port.

20. Which three switch security commands are required to enable
port security on a port so that it will dynamically learn a single
MAC address and disable the port if a host with any other MAC
address is connected? (Choose three.)
(A) switchport mode access
(B) switchport mode trunk