By JO TIMBUONG
intech@thestar.com.my
PETALING JAYA: UniFi — Telekom Malaysia’s(TMpoint) just launched high speed broadband service — comes in three packages.
Residential subscribers can opt for a 5-megabits per second (Mbps), 10Mbps or 20Mbps connection to the Internet.
The 5Mbps package is priced at RM149 per month, the 10Mbps at RM199, and the 20Mbps at RM249. The subscribers will have to sign on for two years.
Each package also comes with a Dect (Digital Enhanced Cordless Telecommunications) phone, a set-top box for IPTV (Internet Protocol Television), Streamyxzone ID for wireless web access, and a 2GB e-mail box.
Subscribers will also enjoy synchronous upload and download speeds, unlike with the ADSL service now where upload speeds are slower than download speeds.
Telekom Malaysia has also capped the amount of data that can be downloaded using each of the packages, in an effort to maintain high surfing speeds.
The 5Mbps package has a 60GB monthly cap on downloads; the 10Mbps package has a 90GB cap, and the 20Mbps package has a 120GB cap. To compare, a typical two-hour high-definition movie is about 8GB in size.
However, some industry pundits have pointed out that the caps are calculated on a daily basis, which restricts the amount of data that can be downloaded each day in a month.
UniFi is now available in Shah Alam, Subang Jaya, Taman Tun Dr Ismail and Bangsar, in the Klang Valley. It will be rolled out to more areas nationwide over the next two years.
There are business packages available for corporate subscribers. As with the home user service, these are also divided into 5Mbps, 10Mbps and 20Mbps packages.
There are no caps on the corporate packages, but prices are much higher. Companies will have to pay RM199 a month for 5Mbps, RM599 for 10Mbps, and RM899 for 20Mbps.
Telekom Malaysia is holding a press conference at its headquarters this afternoon. More details after this event.
Published: Thursday March 25, 2010 MYT 3:26:00 PM
Thursday, March 25, 2010
Saturday, February 27, 2010
CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals – Final exam
01. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?
Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three)
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?
Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP
and MAC addresses in this communication?
Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?
Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1?
Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
- IP
- UDP
- Ethernet
- a connectionless acknowledgement
- an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service
Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?- Connection 1 – rollover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
- Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – rollover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
- Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
- Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – straight-through cable
- Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
- application
- presentation
- session
- transport
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?- 00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
- 198.133.219.25:80
- http://www.cisco.com
- C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
- Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
- Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
- Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
- Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
- Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.
- 10 Base-T
- 10 Base-2
- 10 Base-5
- 100 Base-FX
- 100 Base TX
- 1000 Base LX
Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?- IP address of the host
- default gateway of the host
- IP address of the homepage for the host
- primary domain name server for the host
- IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local
Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.- 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
- 1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
- 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
- uses a flat structure
- prevent broadcasts
- heirarchical
- uniquely identifies each host
- 48 bits in length
- contains a network portion
- application
- presentation
- session
- transport
- network
Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?- IP address incorrectly entered
- network cables unplugged
- subnet mask incorrectly entered
- network card failure
Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?- leaving host A
- leaving ATL
- leaving Dallas
- leaving NYC
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)- This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
- The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
- The data is flowing from server to client.
- The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
- The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
- The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?- Host A was assigned a network address.
- Host B was assigned a multicast address.
- Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
- The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.
- 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
- 200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
- 150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
- 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
- 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
- 127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255
- 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
- 172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
- 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
- 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
- 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
- vty
- aux
- console
- enable secret
- enable password
- TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
- TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
- UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
- TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
- TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
- when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
- when the interface timers have been cleared
- when the connected DTE device is shut down
- when the interface is functioning as a DCE device
- physical addressing
- encoding
- routing
- cabling
- media access control
- access point
- host
- hub
- router
- switch
Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three)- 192.168.18.38
- 192.168.18.48
- 192.168.18.49
- 192.168.18.52
- 192.168.18.59
- 192.168.18.63
Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login
- The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
- The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
- The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
- Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
- Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.255.248.0
- 255.255.252.0
- 255.255.254.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.255.128
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?- The data is automatically encrypted.
- A Telnet server process is running on PC1.
- The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.
- A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.
Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)- segment1
- segment2
- segment3
- segment4
- segment5
Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)- The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
- The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
- The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
- The prefix of the computer address is /27.
- The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
- The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.
- 172.16.4.63 /26
- 172.16.4.129 /26
- 172.16.4.191 /26
- 172.16.4.51 /27
- 172.16.4.95 /27
- 172.16.4.221 /27
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?- IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
- IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
- IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
- IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
- IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
- IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
- service port number
- host logical address
- device physical address
- virtual connection identifier
- two networks routing the packets
- two applications communicating the data
- two hosts at either end of the communication
- two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame
Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?- 1
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?- star
- ring
- point-to-point
- multiaccess
- mesh
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IPand MAC addresses in this communication?
- Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
- Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
- Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
- Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
- Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
- Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94
Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?- The packet will be dropped.
- The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
- The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
- The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?- A, B, D, G
- A, B, E, F
- C, D, G, I
- G, H, I, J
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?- 127.0.0.1
- 192.168.64.196
- 192.168.254.1
- 192.168.254.9
- 192.168.254.254
- Switch-6J>
- Switch-6J#
- Switch-6J(config)#
- Switch-6J(config-if)#
- Switch-6J(config-line)#
- console
- enable
- enable secret
- VTY
- 0 to 255
- 0 to 1023
- 1024 to 49151
- 49152 to 65535
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two)- This is a server response.
- The UDP protocol is being used.
- The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
- The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
- The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.
- Flash
- NVRAM
- RAM
- ROM
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two)- A single broadcast domain is present
- Two logical address ranges are required.
- Three broadcast domains are shown.
- Four networks are needed.
- Five collision domains exist.
- Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
- A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
- A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
- The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
- All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
- After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?- an FTP client
- a Telnet client
- a terminal emulation program
- a web browser
Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1?- Athens
- Ankara
- London
- Paris
- PC4
Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?- only computer D
- only computer A and computer D
- only computer B, computer C, and computer D
- all computers
Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?- address translation
- DHCP services
- ftpd
- web server
Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?- issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
- issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
- issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
- issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
Saturday, February 20, 2010
CCNA Exploration 4,0: Network Fundamentals – Chapter 9 Exam
Chapter 9 Exam Answer
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
01. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
08.
In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
09. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
01. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
- 85
- 90
- BA
- A1
- B3
- 1C
- the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
- the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
- the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
- the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
- the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
- the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable
- The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
- The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
- The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
- The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
- the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
- the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
- any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
- those that began transmitting at the same time
- Collisions can decrease network performance.
- It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
- Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
- CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?- No collisions will occur on this link.
- Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
- The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
- The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
- A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
- A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
- A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
- A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
08.
In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?- Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
- Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
- Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
- Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
09. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
- Network layer
- Transport layer
- Physical layer
- Application layer
- Session layer
- Data-link layer
- MAC sublayer
- Physical layer
- Logical Link Control sublayer
- Network layer
- dynamically assigned
- copied into RAM during system startup
- layer 3 address
- contains a 3 byte OUI
- 6 bytes long
- 32 bits long
Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)- A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
- A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
- A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
- A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
- A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
- A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
- Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.
- Host A will send on to the media a broadcast frame that contains the packet.
- Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
- Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.
- Host A will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC that is the MAC address associated with 172.16.224.1.
- reduction in cross-talk
- minimizing of collisions
- support for UTP cabling
- division into broadcast domains
- increase in the throughput of communications
- application
- physical
- transport
- internet
- data link
- network access
- recognizes streams of bits
- identifies the network layer protocol
- makes the connection with the upper layers
- identifies the source and destination applications
- insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
- determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
- addressing
- error detection
- frame delimiting
- port identification
- path determination
- IP address resolution
- coaxial thicknet
- copper UTP
- coaxial thinnet
- optical fiber
- shielded twisted pair
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?- preamble and stop frame
- network layer packet
- physical addressing
- FCS and SoF
- translate URLs to IP addresses
- resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
- provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
- convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
Tuesday, December 22, 2009
CCNA 1 Exploration 4.0 : Module 1 Answers with Explanation
CCNA stands for Cisco Certified Network Associate. This page contains the examination questions and answers of CCNA 1 Module 1 of CCNA Exploration 4.0. All the questions are taken form different pay-sites, blogs and webpages which are offering several question sets. This page doesn't contain 100% actual question. The questions of CCNA are changing continuously. But don't feel sorrow. I think you will get 50% to 100% questions form here in your examination. All the questions and answers are explained here very carefully.
Credits to rancidTaste :)
Question 01
The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: By using router console port you can configure router, can set password and recover password, troubleshooting etc. So, options 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers. But to route data between networks, you need to define routing protocol. So, option 3 is incorrect. To connect one router to another you need a physical medium. There is no use of console port. So, option 5 is incorrect.
Question 02
Question 03
Question 04
Question 05
Question 06
Question 07
Question 08
Question 09
Question 10
Question 11
Question 12
Question 13
Question 14
Question 15
Question 16
Question 17
Question 18
Question 19
Question 20© Written by rancidTaste
Disclaimer: Please use this information wisely. Use it as study reference rather than just copy and paste the answer.
Credits to rancidTaste :)
Question 01
The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
- debugging.
- password recovery.
- routing data between networks.
- troubleshooting.
- connecting one router to another.
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: By using router console port you can configure router, can set password and recover password, troubleshooting etc. So, options 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers. But to route data between networks, you need to define routing protocol. So, option 3 is incorrect. To connect one router to another you need a physical medium. There is no use of console port. So, option 5 is incorrect.
Question 02
Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
Explanation: Flash memory is an erasable, programmable read-only memory which holds operating system image and microcode. It allows software to be updated without removing any chips and content remain when powered down pr restart. For this reason, 2 and 3 are the correct answers.
- holds the startup configuration by default.
- can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
- stores Cisco IOS software images.
- stores routing table information by default.
- maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.
Explanation: Flash memory is an erasable, programmable read-only memory which holds operating system image and microcode. It allows software to be updated without removing any chips and content remain when powered down pr restart. For this reason, 2 and 3 are the correct answers.
Question 03
Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation: NVRAM stores the backup/startup configuration file for the router. It retains conten when the router is powered down or restarted.
- stores the routing table.
- retains contents when power is removed.
- stores the startup configuration file.
- contains the running configuration file.
- stores the ARP table.
Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation: NVRAM stores the backup/startup configuration file for the router. It retains conten when the router is powered down or restarted.
Question 04
Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: Management connections of Cisco router are used to configuration router. These are non-network connections. So, option 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers. Option 3 and 4 are not correct because it's not a synchronous or asynchronous serial ports. Management connections has no IP address. So, option 6 is not also the correct answer. So, options 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers.
- They are non-network connections.
- They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
- They are synchronous serial ports.
- They are used for initial router configuration.
- They are asynchronous serial ports.
- They are accessed using their assigned IP address.
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: Management connections of Cisco router are used to configuration router. These are non-network connections. So, option 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers. Option 3 and 4 are not correct because it's not a synchronous or asynchronous serial ports. Management connections has no IP address. So, option 6 is not also the correct answer. So, options 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers.
Question 05
An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
Explanation: Internetwork includes switching, dynamic or static routing and it's capable of addressing at the end-to-end addressing. So, option 1, 4 and 5 are correct. Internetwork doesn't include IETF standardization or static addressing.
- switching.
- static addressing.
- IETF standardization.
- dynamic or static routing.
- consistent end-to-end addressing.
Explanation: Internetwork includes switching, dynamic or static routing and it's capable of addressing at the end-to-end addressing. So, option 1, 4 and 5 are correct. Internetwork doesn't include IETF standardization or static addressing.
Question 06
Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
Explanation: Cisco RAM has the following characteristics:
- contains startup configuration file.
- stores routing table.
- holds fast switching cache.
- retains contents when power is removed.
- stores running configuration file.
Explanation: Cisco RAM has the following characteristics:
- stores routing information
- address resolution protocol (ARP)
- fast-switching cache
- packet buffering
- packet hold queues
- RAM contents are lost if power is down or restarted
- provides temporary running memory.
Question 07
Terminal emulatror software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
- bits per second.
- data bits.
- parity.
- stop bits.
- flow control.
Question 08
Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
Explanation:
Straight-through cables are used for the following types of cabling:
- a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
- a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
- a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
- a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
- straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
- a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
Explanation:
Straight-through cables are used for the following types of cabling:
- switch to router
- switch to PC or server
- hub to PC or server
- switch to switch
- PC to PC
- hub to hub
- router to router
- router to PC
Question 09
Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation: Console connection doesn't depend on networking services. Moreover, by using this type of connection the startup and error message can be easily captured. That's why 2 and 3 are the correct answers. And the others are not true answers.
- can be accessed remotely.
- does not depend on network services.
- displays startup and error messages by default.
- does not require special components.
Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation: Console connection doesn't depend on networking services. Moreover, by using this type of connection the startup and error message can be easily captured. That's why 2 and 3 are the correct answers. And the others are not true answers.
Question 10
What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
Explanation: Router has a routing table and the routing table is used for outgoing data packets. So, option 3 is the correct answer.
- ARP tables.
- bridging tables.
- routing tables.
- switching tables.
Explanation: Router has a routing table and the routing table is used for outgoing data packets. So, option 3 is the correct answer.
Question 11
Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 5
Explanation: By using management connection, you can configure router, troubleshoot and monitor the system. So, 1, 2 and 5 are the correct answers.
- troubleshooting problems.
- monitoring the system.
- capturing LAN data packets.
- configuring the router.
- routing data packets.
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 5
Explanation: By using management connection, you can configure router, troubleshoot and monitor the system. So, 1, 2 and 5 are the correct answers.
Question 12
Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
Correct answer: 1, 3 and 6
Explanation: A router doesn't have any monitor, keyboard and hard drive. So, 2, 4 and 5 are the incorrect answer. The correct answers are 1, 3 and 6.
- CPU.
- hard drive.
- input/output interfaces.
- keyboard.
- monitor.
- system bus.
Correct answer: 1, 3 and 6
Explanation: A router doesn't have any monitor, keyboard and hard drive. So, 2, 4 and 5 are the incorrect answer. The correct answers are 1, 3 and 6.
Question 13
Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
Correct answer: 4
Explanation:WAN means Wide Area Network which connects a large geographical area network. So, 4 is the only one correct answer.
- connects peripherals in a single location.
- connects multiple networks in a single building.
- provides connectivity on a LAN.
- provides connectivity over a large geographic area.
Correct answer: 4
Explanation:WAN means Wide Area Network which connects a large geographical area network. So, 4 is the only one correct answer.
Question 14
ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
Correct answer: 2 3 and 4
Explanation: To connect a PC and a router, you need one rollover cable, RJ-45 to DB-9 connectors and you need a software which is the terminal emulator software. So, 2, 3 and 4 are the correct answers.
- straight-through cable.
- terminal emulation software.
- rollover cable.
- RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
- V.35 cable.
Correct answer: 2 3 and 4
Explanation: To connect a PC and a router, you need one rollover cable, RJ-45 to DB-9 connectors and you need a software which is the terminal emulator software. So, 2, 3 and 4 are the correct answers.
Question 15
During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
Explanation: To connect a PC and a router, a crossover cable is used. But when you are configuring your router, then a rollover cable is used. For more explanation, see explanation of question 08.
- twisted
- crossover
- rollover
- straight
Explanation: To connect a PC and a router, a crossover cable is used. But when you are configuring your router, then a rollover cable is used. For more explanation, see explanation of question 08.
Question 16
What contains the instructions that a router uses control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
Correct answer: 2
Explanation: Only the configuration file can control the flow of traffic through its interface.So, option 2 is the correct answer.
- packet configuration.
- configuration files.
- flash memory.
- internal components.
Correct answer: 2
Explanation: Only the configuration file can control the flow of traffic through its interface.So, option 2 is the correct answer.
Question 17
Which of the followings are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
Correct answer: 2 3 and 5
Explanation: By using a router, you can connect LANs and WANS. So, option 5 is correct. All the interfaces are placed on motherboard. So, option 3 is also correct. By using the interfaces the packets are coming and out. So, option 2 is also correct. So, option 2, 3 and 5 are the correct answers.
- provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
- connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
- can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
- hold the IOS image.
- connect the router to LANs and WANs.
Correct answer: 2 3 and 5
Explanation: By using a router, you can connect LANs and WANS. So, option 5 is correct. All the interfaces are placed on motherboard. So, option 3 is also correct. By using the interfaces the packets are coming and out. So, option 2 is also correct. So, option 2, 3 and 5 are the correct answers.
Question 18
Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
Explanation:
WAN is used to communicate large distance network. So, routers, communication servers and modems are used here. So, 2, 3 and 5 are the correct answers.
- hubs.
- routers.
- communication servers.
- transceivers.
- modems.
- multi-port repeaters.
Explanation:
WAN is used to communicate large distance network. So, routers, communication servers and modems are used here. So, 2, 3 and 5 are the correct answers.
Question 19
Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
Correct answer: 3
Explanation: See the explanation of question 3.
- volatile random access memory.
- read only memory.
- non-volatile random access memory.
- flash memory.
Correct answer: 3
Explanation: See the explanation of question 3.
Question 20
Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
Correct answer: 1, 4
Explanation: Physical layer, Data Link layer and Network Layer are the incorporated in WAN standards. So, 1 and 4 are the correct answers.
- physical layer.
- application layer.
- transport layer.
- data link layer.
- session layer.
Correct answer: 1, 4
Explanation: Physical layer, Data Link layer and Network Layer are the incorporated in WAN standards. So, 1 and 4 are the correct answers.
Disclaimer: Please use this information wisely. Use it as study reference rather than just copy and paste the answer.
Thursday, December 10, 2009
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Tuesday, October 27, 2009
OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 8 - Accessing the WAN
updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
- cable types
- connector types
- interface identifiers
- DLCI for virtual circuits
- operating system versions
2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
- physical
- data link
- network
- transport
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
- incorrect encapsulation
- incorrect STP configuration
- incorrect ARP mapping
- incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
- information about the network design
- IP addressing allocation on the network
- requirements about the service provider setup
- requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
- expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
- Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
- Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
- Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
- Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
- Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
- TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
- The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
- Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
- The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
- The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
- The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
- The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
- Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center.
- The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
- Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.
8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
- bottom up
- top down
- divide and conquer
- middle out
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
- baselining tool
- knowledge base
- protocol analyzer
- cable tester
10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
- cable analyzer
- network analyzer
- protocol analyzer
- knowledge base
11. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
- physical
- data link
- network
- application
12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
- narrowing the scope
- gathering symptoms from suspect devices - analyzing existing symptoms
- determining ownership
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
- A carrier detect signal is present.
- Keepalives are being received successfully.
- Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
- Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
- The reliability of this link is very low.
- The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
14. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
- The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
- Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
- The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
- An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
- The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
- application
- transport
- network
- data link
- physical
16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
- physical
- data link
- network
- transport
17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
- 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
- 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
- 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
- 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15
18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
- physical layer
- data link layer
- network layer
- transport layer
- application layer
19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
- All layers
- Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
- Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
- Layer 6 and Layer 7
20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
- Determine fault.
- Get to know the user to build trust.
- Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
- Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
- Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
- Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
- cable types
- connector types
- interface identifiers
- DLCI for virtual circuits
- operating system versions
2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
- physical
- data link
- network
- transport
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
- incorrect encapsulation
- incorrect STP configuration
- incorrect ARP mapping
- incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
- information about the network design
- IP addressing allocation on the network
- requirements about the service provider setup
- requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
- expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
- Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
- Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
- Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
- Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
- Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
- TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
- The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
- Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
- The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
- The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
- The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
- The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
- Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center.
- The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
- Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.
8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
- bottom up
- top down
- divide and conquer
- middle out
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
- baselining tool
- knowledge base
- protocol analyzer
- cable tester
10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
- cable analyzer
- network analyzer
- protocol analyzer
- knowledge base
11. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
- physical
- data link
- network
- application
12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
- narrowing the scope
- gathering symptoms from suspect devices - analyzing existing symptoms
- determining ownership
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
- A carrier detect signal is present.
- Keepalives are being received successfully.
- Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
- Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
- The reliability of this link is very low.
- The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
14. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
- The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
- Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
- The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
- An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
- The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
- application
- transport
- network
- data link
- physical
16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
- physical
- data link
- network
- transport
17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
- 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
- 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
- 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
- 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15
18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
- physical layer
- data link layer
- network layer
- transport layer
- application layer
19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
- All layers
- Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
- Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
- Layer 6 and Layer 7
20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
- Determine fault.
- Get to know the user to build trust.
- Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
- Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
- Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
- Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 7 - Accessing the WAN
updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
1. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
- The DHCP server service is not enabled.
- The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
- The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
- The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
- All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
- The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
- The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.
- The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.
- The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.
3. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?
- 1
- 6
- 7
- 8
-9
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
- It saves public IP addresses.
- It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
- It increases routing performance.
- It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
- It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
- PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
- Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
- Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
- PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
6. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
- NAT overload
- static NAT
- dynamic NAT
- PAT
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
- 10.1.1.2
- 192.168.0.100
- 209.165.20.25
- any address in the 10.1.1.0 network
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
- Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
- Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.
- Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
- A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.
- External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.
9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
- defines which addresses can be translated
- defines which addresses are allowed into the router
- defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
- defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
10. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
- The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician.
- Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
- The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available.
- Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.
11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
- ip nat pool statement
- access-list statement
- ip nat inside is on the wrong interface
- interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address
12. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
- A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.
- The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.
- A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
- A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.
13. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
- 0
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
14. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
- Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.
- Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.
- Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.
- Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
15. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
- Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
- Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
- Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
- Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
16. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
- dynamic NAT
- NAT with overloading
- open port 20
- open port 21
- open port 23
- NAT with port forwarding
17. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
- 10.1.1.1
- 172.30.20.2
- 192.168.1.2
- 255.255.255.255
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
- 10.0.0.125
- 179.9.8.95
- 179.9.8.98
- 179.9.8.101
- 179.9.8.112
19. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
- It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.
- It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.
- It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.
- The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
20. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
- 32
- 48
- 64
- 128
21. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
- 8
- 16
- 80
- 128
updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
1. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
- The DHCP server service is not enabled.
- The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
- The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
- The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
- All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
- The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
- The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.
- The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.
- The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.
3. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?
- 1
- 6
- 7
- 8
-9
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
- It saves public IP addresses.
- It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
- It increases routing performance.
- It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
- It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
- PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
- Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
- Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
- PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
6. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
- NAT overload
- static NAT
- dynamic NAT
- PAT
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
- 10.1.1.2
- 192.168.0.100
- 209.165.20.25
- any address in the 10.1.1.0 network
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
- Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
- Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.
- Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
- A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.
- External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.
9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
- defines which addresses can be translated
- defines which addresses are allowed into the router
- defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
- defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
10. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
- The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician.
- Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
- The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available.
- Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.
11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
- ip nat pool statement
- access-list statement
- ip nat inside is on the wrong interface
- interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address
12. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
- A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.
- The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.
- A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
- A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.
13. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
- 0
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
14. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
- Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.
- Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.
- Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.
- Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
15. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
- Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
- Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
- Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
- Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
16. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
- dynamic NAT
- NAT with overloading
- open port 20
- open port 21
- open port 23
- NAT with port forwarding
17. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
- 10.1.1.1
- 172.30.20.2
- 192.168.1.2
- 255.255.255.255
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
- 10.0.0.125
- 179.9.8.95
- 179.9.8.98
- 179.9.8.101
- 179.9.8.112
19. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
- It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.
- It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.
- It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.
- The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
20. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
- 32
- 48
- 64
- 128
21. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
- 8
- 16
- 80
- 128
updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 6 - Accessing the WAN
updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
- users are on a shared medium
- uses RF signal transmission
- local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
- physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
- user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
- channel widths
- access method
- maximum data rate
- modulation techniques
- compression techniques
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
- use higher RF frequencies
- allocate an additional channel
- subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
- reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
- use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic
4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
- cable
- DSL
- ISDN
- POTS
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
- A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
- The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
- Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting a single user environment.
- Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections using POTS.
6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
- accounting
- authentication
- authorization
- data availability
- data confidentiality
- data integrity
7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
- digital certificates
- ESP
- hashing algorithms
- smart cards
- WPA
8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
- digital certificates
- encryption
- encapsulation
- hashing
- passwords
9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
- AES
- DES
- AH
- hash
- MPLS
- RSA
10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
- Diffie-Hellman
- digital certificate
- pre-shared key
- RSA signature
11. Which statement describes cable?
- Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
- The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
- Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
- Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.
12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
- a WiMAX tower
- a one-way multicast satellite
- a WiMAX receiver
- an access point connected to the company WLAN
13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
- supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
- covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
- supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
- connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
- operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users
14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
- Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
- Data is flowing downstream.
- Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
- The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
- Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
- Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
- Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
- All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
- AH
- L2TP
- ESP
- GRE
- PPTP
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
- ATM
- CHAP
- IPsec
- IPX
- MPLS
- PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
- a GRE tunnel
- a site-to-site VPN
- a remote-access VPN
- the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
- The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
- The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
- The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
- The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
- The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
- The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
- users are on a shared medium
- uses RF signal transmission
- local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
- physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
- user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
- channel widths
- access method
- maximum data rate
- modulation techniques
- compression techniques
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
- use higher RF frequencies
- allocate an additional channel
- subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
- reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
- use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic
4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
- cable
- DSL
- ISDN
- POTS
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
- A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
- The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
- Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting a single user environment.
- Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections using POTS.
6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
- accounting
- authentication
- authorization
- data availability
- data confidentiality
- data integrity
7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
- digital certificates
- ESP
- hashing algorithms
- smart cards
- WPA
8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
- digital certificates
- encryption
- encapsulation
- hashing
- passwords
9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
- AES
- DES
- AH
- hash
- MPLS
- RSA
10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
- Diffie-Hellman
- digital certificate
- pre-shared key
- RSA signature
11. Which statement describes cable?
- Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
- The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
- Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
- Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.
12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
- a WiMAX tower
- a one-way multicast satellite
- a WiMAX receiver
- an access point connected to the company WLAN
13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
- supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
- covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
- supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
- connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
- operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users
14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
- Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
- Data is flowing downstream.
- Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
- The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
- Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
- Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
- Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
- All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
- AH
- L2TP
- ESP
- GRE
- PPTP
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
- ATM
- CHAP
- IPsec
- IPX
- MPLS
- PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
- a GRE tunnel
- a site-to-site VPN
- a remote-access VPN
- the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
- The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
- The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
- The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
- The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
- The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
- The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!
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