REFER SITE..
http://phppro.wordpress.com/2008/08/06/25/
http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2008/10/ccna-exploration-1-final-exam-answers.html
http://ccna-v4-academy.blogspot.com/search/label/CCNA1-Final-Exam
http://ccna4modules.blogspot.com/2008_07_01_archive.html
Tuesday, October 21, 2008
Wednesday, October 15, 2008
CCNA1 - Module 6 Exam Answers V.4
The 95% site : Link
other site : http://ccna4exploration.blogspot.com
http://ccna-v4-academy.blogspot.com/
Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer
1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
• /24
• /16
• /20
• /27
• /25
• /28
2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
• 172.16.4.127 /26
• 172.16.4.155 /26
• 172.16.4.193 /26
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.159 /27
• 172.16.4.207 /27
3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
• NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
• Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
• Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
• IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based • upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
• binary adding
• hexadecimal anding
• binary division
• binary multiplication
• binary ANDing
other site : http://ccna4exploration.blogspot.com
http://ccna-v4-academy.blogspot.com/
Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer
1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
• /24
• /16
• /20
• /27
• /25
• /28
2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
• 172.16.4.127 /26
• 172.16.4.155 /26
• 172.16.4.193 /26
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.159 /27
• 172.16.4.207 /27
3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
• NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
• Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
• Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
• IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based • upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
• binary adding
• hexadecimal anding
• binary division
• binary multiplication
• binary ANDing
5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0
7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
• 172.168.33.1
• 10.35.66.70
• 192.168.99.5
• 172.18.88.90
• 192.33.55.89
• 172.35.16.5
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0
7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
• 172.168.33.1
• 10.35.66.70
• 192.168.99.5
• 172.18.88.90
• 192.33.55.89
• 172.35.16.5
8. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address.
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address.
9. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.192.0
• 172.16.192.128
• 172.16.192.160
• 172.16.192.168
• 172.16.192.176
10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• LAN workstations
• servers
• network printers
• routers
• remote workstations
• laptops
12. hich of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
• larger address space
• faster routing protocols
• data types and classes of service
• authentication and encryption
• improved host naming conventions
• same addressing scheme as IPv4
13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
• security
• header format simplification
• expanded addressing capabilities
• addressing simplification
14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
• The router will discard the packet.
• The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
• The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
• The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
• Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
• There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
• The default gateway device is not operating.
• A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
• 128
• 64
• 48
• 32
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• The router has an incorrect gateway.
• Host A has an overlapping network address.
• Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
• NAT is required for the host A network.
18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
• identifies an individual device
• is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
• is altered as packet is forwarded
• varies in length
• is used to forward packets
• uses flat addressing
19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
• an internet
• a network
• an octet
• a radix
• Bottom of Form
• Top of Form
• Bottom of Form
20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
• 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
• 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.252
• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.192.0
• 172.16.192.128
• 172.16.192.160
• 172.16.192.168
• 172.16.192.176
10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• LAN workstations
• servers
• network printers
• routers
• remote workstations
• laptops
12. hich of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
• larger address space
• faster routing protocols
• data types and classes of service
• authentication and encryption
• improved host naming conventions
• same addressing scheme as IPv4
13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
• security
• header format simplification
• expanded addressing capabilities
• addressing simplification
14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
• The router will discard the packet.
• The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
• The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
• The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
• Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
• There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
• The default gateway device is not operating.
• A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
• 128
• 64
• 48
• 32
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• The router has an incorrect gateway.
• Host A has an overlapping network address.
• Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
• NAT is required for the host A network.
18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
• identifies an individual device
• is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
• is altered as packet is forwarded
• varies in length
• is used to forward packets
• uses flat addressing
19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
• an internet
• a network
• an octet
• a radix
• Bottom of Form
• Top of Form
• Bottom of Form
20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
• 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
• 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.252
The 95% site : Link
Friday, October 10, 2008
CCNA1 - Module 4 Exam Answers V.4
1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
• This is a UDP header.
• This contains a Telnet request.
• This contains a TFTP data transfer.
• The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
• This is a TCP header.
2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
• 0 to 255
• 256 to 1022
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 2047
• 49153 to 65535
3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network
5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
• create a Layer 1 jam signal
• reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
• send a RESET bit to the host
• change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
• to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
• to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
• to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
• to synchronize window size on the server
• to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
• identifies the destination network
• identifies source and destination hosts
• identifies the communicating applications
• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
• identifies the devices communicating over the local media
8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
• session establishment
• segment retransmit
• data transfer
• session disconnect
• Bottom of Form
9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
• The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
• The local host web session with a remote server
• There client session
• The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
• 192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
• destination logical address
• source physical address
• default gateway address
• source port
11. What are two features of the Us
er Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
• flow control
• low overhead
• connectionless
• connection-oriented
• sequence and acknowledgements
12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
• sequence numbers
• session establishment
• window size
• acknowledgments
13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• HTTP
• DNS
14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
• sequencing
• flow control
• acknowledgments
• source and destination
15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
• encapsulation
• flow control
• connectionless services
• session establishment
• numbering and sequencing
• best effort delivery
16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
• The packets will not be delivered.
• The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
• The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
• The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
• acknowledgement of data delivery
• minimal delays in data delivery
• high reliability of data delivery
• same order data delivery
18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
• 13
• 53
• 80
• 1024
• 1728
19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
• The two applications exchange data.
• TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
• UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
• The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
refer site :http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2008/10/ccna1-module-4-exam-answers-v4.html
• This is a UDP header.
• This contains a Telnet request.
• This contains a TFTP data transfer.
• The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
• This is a TCP header.
2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
• 0 to 255
• 256 to 1022
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 2047
• 49153 to 65535
3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network
5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
• create a Layer 1 jam signal
• reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
• send a RESET bit to the host
• change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
• to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
• to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
• to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
• to synchronize window size on the server
• to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
• identifies the destination network
• identifies source and destination hosts
• identifies the communicating applications
• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
• identifies the devices communicating over the local media
8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
• session establishment
• segment retransmit
• data transfer
• session disconnect
• Bottom of Form
9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
• The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
• The local host web session with a remote server
• There client session
• The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
• 192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
• destination logical address
• source physical address
• default gateway address
• source port
11. What are two features of the Us
er Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
• flow control
• low overhead
• connectionless
• connection-oriented
• sequence and acknowledgements
12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
• sequence numbers
• session establishment
• window size
• acknowledgments
13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• HTTP
• DNS
14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
• sequencing
• flow control
• acknowledgments
• source and destination
15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
• encapsulation
• flow control
• connectionless services
• session establishment
• numbering and sequencing
• best effort delivery
16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
• The packets will not be delivered.
• The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
• The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
• The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
• acknowledgement of data delivery
• minimal delays in data delivery
• high reliability of data delivery
• same order data delivery
18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
• 13
• 53
• 80
• 1024
• 1728
19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
• The two applications exchange data.
• TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
• UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
• The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
refer site :http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2008/10/ccna1-module-4-exam-answers-v4.html
CCNA1 - Module 5 Exam Answers V.4
Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer
1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
• destination network address
• source network address
• source MAC address
• well known port destination address
2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
• source and destination MAC
• source and destination application protocol
• source and destination port number
• source and destination IP address
3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
• The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
• type-of-service
• identification
• flags
• time-to-live
• header checksum
5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
• host portion
• broadcast address
• network portion
• gateway address
6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
• 192.135.250.1
• 192.31.7.1
• 192.133.219.0
• 192.133.219.1
7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.
8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
• dynamic
• interior
• static
• standard
10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
• The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
• The router discards the packet.
• The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
• The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
• gateways
• purpose
• physical addressing
• software version
• geographic location
• ownership
12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
• the MAC address of the interface of the router
• the destination Layer 4 port number
• the destination host address
• the next-hop address
13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• firewall
• access point
• bridge
14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
• too few broadcasts
• performance degradation
• security issues
• limited management responsibility
• host identification
• protocol compatibility
15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7
• 8
11
16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
• If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
• If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
• If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
• 10.10.10.26
• 127.0.0.1
• 10.10.10.6
• 10.10.10.1
• 224.0.0.0
18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
• Replace S2 with a router.
• Place all servers on S1.
• Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
• Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• require no device configuration
• provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
• require less processing power than static routes require
• consume bandwidth to exchange route information
• prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
• A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
• A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
• destination network address
• source network address
• source MAC address
• well known port destination address
2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
• source and destination MAC
• source and destination application protocol
• source and destination port number
• source and destination IP address
3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
• The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
• type-of-service
• identification
• flags
• time-to-live
• header checksum
5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
• host portion
• broadcast address
• network portion
• gateway address
6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
• 192.135.250.1
• 192.31.7.1
• 192.133.219.0
• 192.133.219.1
7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.
8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
• dynamic
• interior
• static
• standard
10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
• The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
• The router discards the packet.
• The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
• The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
• gateways
• purpose
• physical addressing
• software version
• geographic location
• ownership
12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
• the MAC address of the interface of the router
• the destination Layer 4 port number
• the destination host address
• the next-hop address
13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• firewall
• access point
• bridge
14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
• too few broadcasts
• performance degradation
• security issues
• limited management responsibility
• host identification
• protocol compatibility
15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7
• 8
11
16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
• If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
• If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
• If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
• 10.10.10.26
• 127.0.0.1
• 10.10.10.6
• 10.10.10.1
• 224.0.0.0
18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
• Replace S2 with a router.
• Place all servers on S1.
• Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
• Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• require no device configuration
• provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
• require less processing power than static routes require
• consume bandwidth to exchange route information
• prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
• A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
• A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
Wednesday, October 8, 2008
CCNA1 - Module 3 Exam Answers V.4
Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer
1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
• HTML
• HTTP
• FTP
• Telnet
2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
• applications
• dialogs
• requests
• services
• syntax
3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
• centralized administration
• does not require specialized software
• security is easier to enforce
• lower cost implementation
• provides a single point of failure
4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
• temporarily holds resolved entries
• used by the server to resolve names
• sent by the client to during a query
• passes authentication information between the server and client
5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
• HTTP
• SSH
• FQDN
• DNS
• Telnet
• SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• ARP
• DNS
• PPP
• SMTP
• POP
• ICMP
7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
• acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
• requires centralized account administration.
• hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
• can be used in client-server networks.
• requires a direct physical connection between devices.
• centralized authentication is required.
8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
• DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
• HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
• POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
• SMTP supports file sharing
• Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
• MDA
• IMAP
• MTA
• POP
• SMTP
• MUA
10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
• not widely available
• does not support encryption
• consumes more network bandwidth
• does not support authentication
11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
• routes email to the MDA on other servers
• receives email from the client's MUA
• receives email via the POP3 protocol
• passes email to the MDA for final delivery
• uses SMTP to route email between servers
• delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
• ASP
• FTP
HTML
• HTTP
• HTTPS
• IP
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
• User accounts are centralized.
• Security is difficult to enforce.
• Specialized operating system software is required.
• File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
• A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
• physical
• session
• network
• presentation
• application
• transport
15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
• 80
• 1261
• 15533
• 3912
• 65520
16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
• scalable
• one way data flow
• decentralized resources
• centralized user accounts
• resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
• DHCP
• DNS
• SMB
• SMTP
• Telnet
18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
• use daemons
• initiate data exchanges
• are repositories of data
• may upload data to servers
• listen for requests from servers
19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
• provides segmentation of data
• provides encryption and conversion of data
• provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
• provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
• ceases all connections to the service
• denies multiple connections to a single daemon
• suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
• uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service
1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
• HTML
• HTTP
• FTP
• Telnet
2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
• applications
• dialogs
• requests
• services
• syntax
3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
• centralized administration
• does not require specialized software
• security is easier to enforce
• lower cost implementation
• provides a single point of failure
4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
• temporarily holds resolved entries
• used by the server to resolve names
• sent by the client to during a query
• passes authentication information between the server and client
5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
• HTTP
• SSH
• FQDN
• DNS
• Telnet
• SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• ARP
• DNS
• PPP
• SMTP
• POP
• ICMP
7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
• acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
• requires centralized account administration.
• hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
• can be used in client-server networks.
• requires a direct physical connection between devices.
• centralized authentication is required.
8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
• DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
• HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
• POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
• SMTP supports file sharing
• Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
• MDA
• IMAP
• MTA
• POP
• SMTP
• MUA
10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
• not widely available
• does not support encryption
• consumes more network bandwidth
• does not support authentication
11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
• routes email to the MDA on other servers
• receives email from the client's MUA
• receives email via the POP3 protocol
• passes email to the MDA for final delivery
• uses SMTP to route email between servers
• delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
• ASP
• FTP
HTML
• HTTP
• HTTPS
• IP
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
• User accounts are centralized.
• Security is difficult to enforce.
• Specialized operating system software is required.
• File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
• A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
• physical
• session
• network
• presentation
• application
• transport
15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
• 80
• 1261
• 15533
• 3912
• 65520
16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
• scalable
• one way data flow
• decentralized resources
• centralized user accounts
• resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
• DHCP
• DNS
• SMB
• SMTP
• Telnet
18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
• use daemons
• initiate data exchanges
• are repositories of data
• may upload data to servers
• listen for requests from servers
19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
• provides segmentation of data
• provides encryption and conversion of data
• provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
• provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
• ceases all connections to the service
• denies multiple connections to a single daemon
• suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
• uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service
Tuesday, October 7, 2008
CCNA - the correct answer
CCNA Exploration
after the chapter 2 test, almost every CN spartans get full marks. Well , it is a good news!
here is some website that are identical with what we had test before, check it out. the question is almost 100% identical!
http://ccna4-exploration.blogspot.com/2008/06/ccna-4-exploration-chapter-2-exam.html
the 100% answer correctness
http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2008/10/ccna1-module-3-exam-answers-v4.html
other same site
http://ccna4exploration.blogspot.com/2008/01/ccna-1-module-3-exam-answers.html
http://ciscoexamanswers.blogspot.com/2008/10/ccna-exploration-module-3-exam-answers.html
after the chapter 2 test, almost every CN spartans get full marks. Well , it is a good news!
here is some website that are identical with what we had test before, check it out. the question is almost 100% identical!
http://ccna4-exploration.blogspot.com/2008/06/ccna-4-exploration-chapter-2-exam.html
the 100% answer correctness
http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2008/10/ccna1-module-3-exam-answers-v4.html
other same site
http://ccna4exploration.blogspot.com/2008/01/ccna-1-module-3-exam-answers.html
http://ciscoexamanswers.blogspot.com/2008/10/ccna-exploration-module-3-exam-answers.html
Saturday, October 4, 2008
CCNA -helping you to score
tutorial of the exam
http://www.cisco.com/web/learning/wwtraining/certprog/training/cert_exam_tutorial.html
http://ccna4exploration.blogspot.com/
http://ccna4-exploration.blogspot.com/
http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/
http://cisco-exam.blogspot.com/
Read all the question. The answer of the question correctness will be between 80%-100%
all the best to CN spartans.
http://www.cisco.com/web/learning/wwtraining/certprog/training/cert_exam_tutorial.html
http://ccna4exploration.blogspot.com/
http://ccna4-exploration.blogspot.com/
http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/
http://cisco-exam.blogspot.com/
Read all the question. The answer of the question correctness will be between 80%-100%
all the best to CN spartans.
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